This set of Avionics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Mechanics of Landing”.
1. What does the term all weather landing refer?
a) Reduced visibility
b) Cross winds
c) Solar storms
d) Storm activity
Explanation: Considerable interference to civil and military operations results due to reduced visibility in terminal areas. While the successful landing of aircraft depends on many factors other than visibility and ceiling, such as cross winds and storm activity, the term all weather operations often refers only to operations in conditions of reduced visibility.
2. The restriction of visibility to various degrees defined by law in certain countries is called _______
a) Instrument meteorological conditions
b) Flight rules
c) Weather instrument law
d) Weather visibility conditions
Explanation: Instrument meteorological conditions or IMC are those in which visibility is restricted to various degrees defined by law in certain countries. Aircraft operating in IMC are supposed to fly under instrument flight rules also defined by law.
3. What is the altitude at which the landing must be aborted if a runway is not in sight?
a) Low altitude
b) Decision height
c) Abortion altitude
d) Visibility altitude
Explanation: During a landing, the decision height or DH is the height above the runway at which the landing must be aborted if the runway is not in sight. Usually, with better avionic systems and electronic aids, the DH can be lowered.
4. What is the decision height for the category I landing system?
Explanation: The decision height for category I systems is not less than 200ft, visibility not less than 2600ft, or runway visual range not less than 1800ft with appropriate runway lighting.
5. ILS is not required for category I.
Explanation: The aircraft require ILS and marker beacon receivers beyond other requirements for flights under IFR. Category I approaches are performed routinely by pilots with instrument rating.
6. Which of the following is not required in a category II system?
a) Dual ILS system
b) Rain removal equipment
c) Head up display
d) Missed approach attitude guidance
Explanation: In a category II system the aircraft must carry dual ILS receivers, dual flight directors, two pilots, radar altimeter, rain removal equipment and missed approach attitude guidance. Auto throttle system may also be required.
7. Which category deals with zero visibility conditions?
a) Category I
b) Category III C
c) Category II
d) Every category
Explanation: Category III C is the system’s ability to fly under zero visibility conditions. It has no DH and RVR limits.
8. The height below which landing may continue in case of equipment failure is called as?
a) decision height
b) Abortion altitude
c) Visibility altitude
d) Alert height
Explanation: Alert height is the altitude below which landing may continue in case of equipment failure. To meet alert height restrictions, either the avionics must be fault tolerant or the crew must be able to take over manually.
9. Which of the following are used to measure visibility conditions?
Explanation: Ceilometers and transmissometers are used to measure terminal area visible conditions. These measures visible conditions differ from each airport and due to weather. During each approach, these data radioed to the pilot.
10. In deteriorated weather, operations must be conducted under IFR.
Explanation: In deteriorated weather, operations must be conducted under IFR or instrument flight rules. An IFR instrument procedure is either precision or non precision. Category I, II, III are precision approach procedures.
11. In an approach, the transition flight path is defined by __________
b) Celestial fix
c) Initial and final approach fix
Explanation: Approach altitudes are measured barometrically and the transition flight path is defined by initial and final approach fixes using Tacan and marker beacons. Radar vectors can also be used at times.
12. What does the light bar provide to the pilot?
a) Pitch, roll and azimuth cues
b) Roll cues
c) Pitch cues
d) Azimuth cues
Explanation: The light bars provide azimuth, roll and pitch cues to the pilot. Center line and edge lights provide rollout cues.
13. What is the minimum descent altitude for non precision flight?
a) 100 to 1000ft
b) 10 to 100ft
c) 250 to 1000ft
d) 1000 to 2000ft
Explanation: For non precision approach, the minimum descent altitude is defined below which the aircraft may not descend without visual contact with the runway. It ranges from 250 to 1000ft depending upon local obstructions, aircraft type, navigational aids and runway lighting.
14. What is the rate of descent when the flare maneuver is executed?
a) 6 ft/sec
Explanation: Land based aircraft are not designed to touch down at the 6 to 16ft/sec sink rate that exists along the glide path. Thus, a flare maneuver must be executed to reduce the descent rate to less than 3ft/sec at touchdown.
15. What is the speed reduction in a typical jet aircraft during the flare?
Explanation: Since during a flare maneuver the angle of attack is increased both lift and drag is increased. The excess lift causes upward acceleration to reduce the rate of descent and the increase in drag accounts for the reduction in the speed of the aircraft.
Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Avionics.
To practice all areas of Avionics, here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice Questions and Answers.