This set of Aerodynamics Multiple Choice Questions & Answers (MCQs) focuses on “Linearized Velocity Potential Equation”.

1. What will be the x – component of velocity for a slender body which is immersed in uniform flow having perturbations?

a) V_{x} = V_{∞} + u^{‘}

b) V_{x} = V_{∞} + v^{‘}

c) V_{x} = V_{∞} + w^{‘}

d) V_{x} = V_{∞}

View Answer

Explanation: When a slender body is in a uniform laminar flow having small perturbations u

^{‘}, v

^{‘}, w

^{‘}in x, y, z direction. The x, y, z components of the velocity is given by:

V

_{x}= V

_{∞}+ u

^{‘}

V

_{y}= v

^{‘}

V

_{z}= w

^{‘}

2. What is the velocity potential for a slender body in uniform flow with perturbations?

a) **Φ**(x, y, z) = V_{∞} x + ϕ(x, y, z)

b) **Φ**(x, y, z) = V_{∞} z + ϕ(x, y, z)

c) **Φ**(x, y, z) = V_{∞} y + ϕ(x, y, z)

d) ∇**Φ** = u^{‘}**i** + v^{‘}**j** + (V_{∞} + w^{‘})**k**

View Answer

Explanation: When the body is placed in a uniform flow, the y and z components of the local velocity are zero. Since the velocity potential is given by

**V**= ∇

**Φ**and the local velocity is given by

**V**= (V

_{∞}+ u

^{‘})

**i**+ v

^{‘}

**j**+ w

^{‘}

**k**, we can use perturbation velocity potential to derive the relation.

Perturbation velocity potential is related to the perturbations in x, y, z components as follows:

\(\frac {∂ϕ}{∂x}\) = u

^{‘}, \(\frac {∂ϕ}{∂y}\) = v

^{‘}, \(\frac {∂ϕ}{∂z}\) = w

^{‘}

Substituting this in the equation

**V**= ∇

**Φ**= (V

_{∞}+ u

^{‘})

**i**+ v

^{‘}

**j**+ w

^{‘}

**k**we get,

**Φ**(x, y, z) = V

_{∞}x + ϕ(x, y, z)

3. In which equation is total velocity and it double derivative substituted to obtain the perturbation velocity potential equation?

a) Momentum equation

b) Velocity potential equation

c) Perturbation equation

d) Enthalpy equation

View Answer

Explanation: The velocity potential equation is given by:

(1 – \(\frac {Φ_x^2}{a^2}\))

**Φ**+ (1 – \(\frac {Φ_y^2}{a^2}\))

_{xx}**Φ**+ (1 – \(\frac {Φ_z^2}{a^2}\))

_{yy}**Φ**– (\(\frac {2Φ_x Φ_y}{a^2}\))

_{zz}**Φ**– (\(\frac {2Φ_x Φ_z}{a^2}\))

_{xy}**Φ**– (\(\frac {2Φ_y Φ_z}{a^2}\))

_{xz}**Φ**

_{yz}The total velocity potential is related to the perturbation velocity potential by:

**Φ**= V

_{x}_{∞}+ Φ

_{x},

**Φ**= ϕ

_{y}_{y},

**Φ**= ϕ

_{z}_{z}

And its double derivative is given by

**Φ**= ϕ

_{xx}_{xx},

**Φ**= ϕ

_{yy}_{yy},

**Φ**= ϕ

_{zz}_{zz}

Substituting these values in the velocity potential equation and multiplying it with a

^{2}we get

(a

^{2}– (V

_{∞}+ ϕ

_{x})

^{2})ϕ

_{xx}+ (a

^{2}– ϕ

_{y}

^{2}) ϕ

_{yy}+ (a

^{2}– ϕ

_{z}

^{2}) ϕ

_{zz}– (2(V

_{∞}+ ϕ

_{x})ϕ

_{y})ϕ

_{xy}– (2(V

_{∞}+ ϕ

_{x})ϕ

_{z})ϕ

_{xz}– (2ϕ

_{y}ϕ

_{z}) ϕ

_{yz}

The above equation is known as the perturbation velocity potential equation which is a non linear equation.

4. Linearized perturbation velocity potential equation is applicable for transonic flow.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Explanation: The linearized perturbation velocity potential is derived after taking making assumptions to convert the non – linear equation into linear equation. One of the assumption made is that for the flow between Mach number 0 and 0.8 (transonic flow), the term M\(_∞^2 \big [ \)(γ – 1) \(\frac {u^{‘}}{V_∞} + (\frac {γ + 1}{2}) \frac {u^{‘^2}}{V_{∞}^{2}} + (\frac {γ – 1}{2})(\frac {v^{‘{^2}} + w^{‘^{2}}}{V_∞^2}) \big ] \frac {∂u^{‘}}{∂x}\) in the non – linear perturbation velocity potential equation is ignored because of its negligible value. Due to this assumption, the linearized equation is not applicable for transonic flows.

5. Which of these assumptions are not made while obtaining the linearized perturbation velocity potential equation?

a) Small perturbations are there

b) Transonic flow is excluded

c) Hypersonic flow is excluded

d) Subsonic flow is excluded

View Answer

Explanation: In order to obtain the linearized perturbation velocity potential equation, there are few assumptions made. The perturbations u

^{‘}, v

^{‘}, w

^{‘}are assumed to be small in comparison to the free stream velocity. Apart from this the equation is not applicable for transonic flow with Mach number between 0.8 and 1.2 and for hypersonic flow with Mach number greater than 5.

6. Linearized velocity potential equation is applicable to hypersonic flow.

a) True

b) False

View Answer

Explanation: Linearized velocity potential equation is not applicable for hypersonic flows with Mach number greater than 5 as in the non – linear velocity potential equation, there is an assumption made that the magnitude of M\(_∞^2 \big [ \)(γ – 1) \(\frac {u^{‘}}{V_∞} + (\frac {γ + 1}{2}) \frac {u^{‘^2}}{V_{∞}^{2}} + (\frac {γ – 1}{2})(\frac {w^{‘{^2}} + u^{‘^{2}}}{V_∞^2}) \big ] \frac {∂v^{‘}}{∂x}\) is small compared to the left hand side thus is neglected to arrive at the linearized velocity potential equation.

7. Which of these assumptions is invalid for the linearized velocity potential equation?

a) \(\frac {u^{‘}}{V_∞}\) << 1

b) \(\frac {v^{‘}}{V_∞}\) << 1

c) \(\frac {w^{‘}}{V_∞}\) >> 1

d) \(\frac {w^{‘}}{V_∞}\) << 1

View Answer

Explanation: The perturbation velocity potential equation is given by:

(a

^{2}– (V

_{∞}+ ϕ

_{x})

^{2}) ϕ

_{xx}+ (a

^{2}– ϕ

_{y}

^{2}) ϕ

_{yy}+ (a

^{2}– ϕ

_{z}

^{2}) ϕ

_{zz}– (2(V

_{∞}+ ϕ

_{x}) ϕ

_{y}) ϕ

_{xy}– (2(V

_{∞}+ ϕ

_{x}) ϕ

_{z}) ϕ

_{xz}– (2ϕ

_{y}ϕ

_{z}) ϕ

_{yz}

This relation is non – linear in nature and in order to reduce to the linear form, an assumption is made i.e. the perturbations in uniform flow is very small. This results in u

^{‘}, v

^{‘}, w

^{‘}<< V

_{∞}.

8. Which of these is linearized velocity potential equation?

a) (1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕ_{xx} + ϕ_{yy} + ϕ_{zz} = 0

b) ϕ_{xx} + (1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕ_{yy} + ϕ_{zz} = 0

c) ϕ_{xx} + ϕ_{yy} + (1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕ_{zz} = 0

d) (1 – M\(_∞^2\))[ϕ_{xx} + ϕ_{yy} + ϕ_{zz}] = 0

View Answer

Explanation: When the assumptions of small perturbations and transonic, hypersonic conditions are excluded, the linearized velocity potential equation is found out as follows:

(1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕ

_{xx}+ ϕ

_{yy}+ ϕ

_{zz}= 0

Where, ϕ

_{xx}= \(\frac {∂^2 ϕ}{∂x^2}\), ϕ

_{yy}= \(\frac {∂^2 ϕ}{∂y^2}\), ϕ

_{zz}= \(\frac {∂^2 ϕ}{∂z^2}\)

9. Which equation is satisfied when the Mach number approaches to zero in linearized velocity potential equation?

a) Laplace equation

b) Momentum equation

c) Energy equation

d) Euler’s equation

View Answer

Explanation: The linearized velocity potential equation is given by (1 – M\(_∞^2\))ϕ

_{xx}+ ϕ

_{yy}+ ϕ

_{zz}= 0. When the Mach number approaches to zero, the equation takes the form ϕ

_{xx}+ ϕ

_{yy}+ ϕ

_{zz}= 0 which is a form of Laplace equation ∇

^{2}ϕ = 0 and the flow becomes incompressible.

10. What happens to the linearized velocity potential equation for flow over high thickness – chord ratio?

a) Becomes zero

b) Becomes 1

c) Is invalid

d) Becomes infinity

View Answer

Explanation: The linearized velocity potential equation becomes invalid for flows at higher Mach number with limit tends to infinity. It is also not valid for flows over airfoil at higher angle of attack and high thickness to chard ratio.

**Sanfoundry Global Education & Learning Series – Aerodynamics.**

To practice all areas of Aerodynamics, __here is complete set of 1000+ Multiple Choice Questions and Answers__.

**If you find a mistake in question / option / answer, kindly take a screenshot and email to [email protected]**

**Related Posts:**

- Apply for Aerospace Engineering Internship
- Check Aeronautical Engineering Books
- Practice Aeronautical Engineering MCQs
- Practice Aerospace Engineering MCQs
- Check Aerodynamics Books