Class 9 Science MCQs are designed as per the NCERT syllabus to help students prepare for their exams, especially board exams. These questions cover key topics in Physics, Chemistry, Biology, and Environmental Science. Practicing these MCQs helps students improve their knowledge, understand concepts better, and get ready for exams with confidence.
1. Which of the following is the basic unit of life?
a) Tissue
b) Atom
c) Organ
d) Cell
View Answer
Explanation: The cell is the fundamental unit of life, as it is the smallest unit that can carry out all the necessary functions of life. All living organisms are made up of cells, and they serve as the building blocks of life.
2. What is the chemical formula of water?
a) CO2
b) O2
c) H2O
d) H2O2
View Answer
Explanation: The chemical formula of water is H₂O, indicating that it consists of two hydrogen atoms (H) and one oxygen atom (O) bonded together. Water is essential for life and covers most of the Earth’s surface.
3. Which of the following is a renewable source of energy?
a) Coal
b) Natural gas
c) Solar energy
d) Oil
View Answer
Explanation: Solar energy is considered a renewable source because it is naturally replenished. Unlike fossil fuels such as coal, oil, and natural gas, solar energy does not deplete over time and is sustainable for long-term use.
4. Which of the following is a state of matter?
a) Gas
b) Liquid
c) Solid
d) All of the mentioned
View Answer
Explanation: Matter exists in three primary states: solid, liquid, and gas. Each state has different characteristics, such as shape and volume, and changes can occur between them through processes like melting, freezing, and evaporation.
5. What is the primary function of red blood cells?
a) Carry oxygen
b) Fight infections
c) Regulate body temperature
d) Transport nutrients
View Answer
Explanation: The main role of red blood cells is to carry oxygen from the lungs to the body’s tissues and organs. They contain hemoglobin, a protein that binds to oxygen, allowing efficient transport throughout the circulatory system.
6. What is the pH of lemon juice?
a) 7
b) 6
c) 4
d) 9
View Answer
Explanation: Lemon juice is acidic, with a pH of around 4. The low pH is due to the citric acid present in lemons, which gives it a sour taste and makes it effective for various uses, including as a natural preservative.
7. Which organ is responsible for pumping blood in humans?
a) Brain
b) Stomach
c) Heart
d) Liver
View Answer
Explanation: The heart is the vital organ responsible for pumping blood throughout the body. It works as a muscular pump, circulating blood to deliver oxygen and nutrients to tissues and remove waste products.
8. Which of the following is the SI unit of temperature?
a) Joule
b) Kelvin
c) Celsius
d) Fahrenheit
View Answer
Explanation: The SI unit of temperature is Kelvin (K). While Celsius and Fahrenheit are commonly used, the Kelvin scale is the standard in scientific measurements, where 0 K is absolute zero, the point at which molecular motion ceases.
9. Which of the following is not an example of a chemical reaction?
a) Dissolving salt in water
b) Burning of wood
c) Rusting of iron
d) Digestion of food
View Answer
Explanation: Dissolving salt in water is a physical change, not a chemical reaction. In this process, the salt dissociates into ions, but no new substance is formed, unlike in burning, rusting, or digestion, which involve chemical transformations.
10. What is the process of a solid turning directly into a gas called?
a) Freezing
b) Melting
c) Sublimation
d) Condensation
View Answer
Explanation: Sublimation is the process by which a solid changes directly into a gas without first becoming a liquid. This occurs when molecules in a solid gain enough energy to break free and enter the gaseous phase, such as with dry ice.
11. Which of the following is not a property of metals?
a) Ductile
b) Malleable
c) Good conductors of electricity
d) Poor conductors of heat
View Answer
Explanation: Metals are known for being good conductors of heat and electricity. They are also malleable (can be hammered into sheets) and ductile (can be drawn into wires), but they do not act as poor conductors of heat.
12. Which of the following is a property of a chemical reaction?
a) It always requires heat
b) It results in the formation of new substances
c) It only occurs in solids
d) It only occurs in gases
View Answer
Explanation: A chemical reaction results in the formation of new substances with properties different from those of the reactants. Unlike physical changes, which do not form new substances, chemical reactions involve such transformations.
13. What is the primary source of energy for plants?
a) Air
b) Water
c) Sunlight
d) Soil
View Answer
Explanation: Sunlight is the primary energy source for plants, which they use to conduct photosynthesis. During this process, plants convert light energy into chemical energy to fuel growth and development.
14. What happens to the particles of matter when it is heated?
a) They move faster
b) They remain in the same position
c) They move slower
d) They change into a different substance
View Answer
Explanation: When matter is heated, the particles gain energy, causing them to move faster. This can lead to changes in the state of matter, such as from solid to liquid or liquid to gas.
15. Which of the following is a chemical property of matter?
a) Melting point
b) Hardness
c) Density
d) Reactivity with oxygen
View Answer
Explanation: Reactivity with oxygen is a chemical property, which refers to how a substance interacts with oxygen to form new compounds, such as rusting in metals. Other listed properties, like hardness and melting point, are physical properties.
16. Which of the following substances can exist in all three states of matter?
a) Nitrogen
b) Oxygen
c) Water
d) Carbon dioxide
View Answer
Explanation: Water can exist in all three states of matter: solid (ice), liquid (water), and gas (steam), depending on temperature and pressure. This makes water unique in its ability to change phases.
17. What is a pure substance?
a) A substance with only one type of molecule
b) A substance with a mixture of different molecules
c) A substance that can be separated into two or more components
d) A substance that is impure
View Answer
Explanation: A pure substance consists of only one type of molecule or atom, meaning it cannot be separated into other substances by physical means. Examples include elements like oxygen and compounds like water.
18. What type of mixture is sugar dissolved in water?
a) Suspension
b) Colloid
c) Homogeneous mixture
d) Heterogeneous mixture
View Answer
Explanation: When sugar dissolves in water, it forms a homogeneous mixture because the sugar molecules are evenly distributed throughout the solution. In contrast, heterogeneous mixtures have uneven distribution of components.
19. What is the primary difference between a compound and a mixture?
a) Mixtures have a fixed composition
b) Compounds are chemically bonded
c) Mixtures are always pure substances
d) Compounds can be separated by physical methods
View Answer
Explanation: Compounds are substances in which elements are chemically bonded in fixed proportions, whereas mixtures are combinations of substances that can be separated by physical methods and do not have fixed compositions.
20. What is the smallest particle of an element?
a) Proton
b) Molecule
c) Ion
d) Atom
View Answer
Explanation: An atom is the smallest unit of an element that retains all its chemical properties. While protons are part of an atom’s structure, atoms themselves are the basic building blocks of elements.
21. Which of the following elements has an atomic number of 6?
a) Hydrogen
b) Carbon
c) Nitrogen
d) Oxygen
View Answer
Explanation: Carbon has an atomic number of 6, which means it has 6 protons in its nucleus. This number defines the element and determines its chemical properties.
22. Which of the following is an example of a covalent bond?
a) Sodium chloride (NaCl)
b) Magnesium oxide (MgO)
c) Calcium chloride (CaCl2)
d) Hydrogen (H2)
View Answer
Explanation: In hydrogen (H2), the two hydrogen atoms share electrons to form a covalent bond. Covalent bonds occur when atoms share electrons to achieve stability.
23. What is the atomic number of an element with 6 protons and 6 electrons?
a) 12
b) 6
c) 4
d) 8
View Answer
Explanation: The atomic number is determined by the number of protons in the atom. Since this element has 6 protons, its atomic number is 6, which identifies it as carbon.
24. What is the mass of an electron?
a) 1 amu
b) 1836 amu
c) 1/1836 amu
d) 0 amu
View Answer
Explanation: The mass of an electron is approximately 1/1836 of the mass of a proton. Electrons are extremely light compared to protons and neutrons.
25. Which part of the atom contains the protons and neutrons?
a) Nucleus
b) Electron cloud
c) Shells
d) Orbitals
View Answer
Explanation: The protons and neutrons are located in the nucleus of the atom, which is at the center and contains nearly all of the atom’s mass.
26. The discovery of the neutron was made by?
a) Niels Bohr
b) James Chadwick
c) Ernest Rutherford
d) J.J. Thomson
View Answer
Explanation: James Chadwick discovered the neutron in 1932, which led to a better understanding of the atom’s structure and its subatomic particles.
27. Which model of the atom is known as the “plum pudding model”?
a) Dalton’s model
b) Rutherford’s model
c) Bohr’s model
d) Thomson’s model
View Answer
Explanation: J.J. Thomson proposed the “plum pudding model” of the atom, in which electrons are embedded in a positively charged substance like raisins in a pudding.
28. Which gas is responsible for the greenhouse effect?
a) Hydrogen
b) Carbon dioxide
c) Oxygen
d) Nitrogen
View Answer
Explanation: Carbon dioxide is a greenhouse gas that traps heat in the Earth’s atmosphere, contributing to global warming and climate change.
29. Which of the following is a property of acids?
a) Does not change color of litmus paper
b) Slippery feel
c) Sour taste
d) Bitter taste
View Answer
Explanation: Acids are known for their sour taste and ability to turn blue litmus paper red. Common examples include citric acid in lemons and hydrochloric acid in stomachs.
30. What is the SI unit of acceleration?
a) m/s2
b) m/s
c) km/h
d) s/m
View Answer
Explanation: The SI unit of acceleration is meters per second squared (m/s2), which indicates the rate at which an object’s velocity changes over time.
31. An object travels 10 m east and then 10 m west. What is its displacement?
a) 20 m
b) 10 m
c) 0 m
d) 5 m
View Answer
Explanation: Displacement is the shortest distance between the starting and ending points. Since the object returns to its original position, its displacement is 0 m, regardless of the total distance traveled.
32. What is the term for motion along a straight line?
a) Circular motion
b) Rectilinear motion
c) Vibrational motion
d) Rotational motion
View Answer
Explanation: Motion along a straight line is called rectilinear motion, such as the movement of a car on a straight road.
33. Which of the following describes an object in motion?
a) It is moving with constant velocity
b) It is at rest
c) It is changing position over time
d) It is moving in a straight line
View Answer
Explanation: Motion refers to an object’s change in position relative to time, which is the key characteristic of being in motion.
34. Which law explains the relationship between force and motion?
a) Newton’s First Law
b) Law of Universal Gravitation
c) Newton’s Third Law
d) Newton’s Second Law
View Answer
Explanation: Newton’s Second Law of Motion states that force is equal to mass multiplied by acceleration (F = ma), explaining how force affects an object’s motion.
35. Which law explains why a person feels pushed back when a car suddenly accelerates?
a) Newton’s Third Law
b) Newton’s First Law
c) Newton’s Second Law
d) Law of Universal Gravitation
View Answer
Explanation: Newton’s First Law of Motion, also known as the law of inertia, explains that an object at rest (the person) will stay at rest unless acted upon by an external force. This is why a person feels pushed back when the car accelerates.
36. Which of the following is an example of an action and reaction pair according to Newton’s Third Law of Motion?
a) A person pushing a wall
b) A ball falling to the ground
c) A car accelerating
d) A rocket lifting off
View Answer
Explanation: Newton’s Third Law states that for every action, there is an equal and opposite reaction. When a person pushes a wall, the wall pushes back with an equal and opposite force.
37. What is the value of acceleration due to gravity on Earth?
a) 10 m/s2
b) 9.8 m/s
c) 9.8 m/s2
d) 9.8 N/kg
View Answer
Explanation: The acceleration due to gravity on Earth is approximately 9.8 m/s2. This means that, in the absence of air resistance, an object’s velocity will increase by 9.8 meters per second every second as it falls.
38. Which of the following is true about gravitational force?
a) It is always attractive
b) It is a contact force
c) It depends on the color of the object
d) It is a non-contact force
View Answer
Explanation: Gravitational force is always attractive, meaning it pulls objects toward each other. It is also a non-contact force because it acts at a distance.
39. What is the relationship between weight and mass?
a) Weight is independent of mass
b) Weight is inversely proportional to mass
c) Weight is proportional to mass
d) Weight is proportional to volume
View Answer
Explanation: Weight is directly proportional to mass. The greater the mass of an object, the greater its weight, as weight depends on the gravitational pull acting on the object.
40. Which of the following objects experiences gravitational force?
a) Only the Moon
b) Any object with mass
c) Only objects near the Earth’s surface
d) Only Earth
View Answer
Explanation: Gravitational force acts on any object that has mass, whether it’s on Earth, the Moon, or in space. This force is present between any two masses.
41. If the displacement is zero, what is the work done by the force?
a) Infinite
b) Negative
c) Zero
d) Positive
View Answer
Explanation: Work is defined as the force applied over a distance. If the displacement is zero, no work is done, regardless of the force applied.
42. What is the energy possessed by an object due to its position or configuration called?
a) Thermal energy
b) Potential energy
c) Radiant energy
d) Kinetic energy
View Answer
Explanation: Potential energy is the energy stored in an object due to its position or configuration, such as an object at a height or a compressed spring.
43. What is the power consumed by a 60-watt bulb in 2 hours?
a) 120 J
b) 60 J
c) 120 W
d) 720 W
View Answer
Explanation: Power is energy consumed per unit time. In 2 hours, the total energy consumed is 60 W × 2 h = 120 Wh, which is equal to 120 J/s × 2 × 3600 s = 120 J.
44. Which of the following represents the best example of energy conservation?
a) A battery being charged
b) A pendulum swinging back and forth
c) Water freezing into ice
d) A car accelerating on a highway
View Answer
Explanation: A pendulum conserves energy by continuously converting between potential and kinetic energy, which demonstrates the principle of energy conservation.
45. Sound waves are examples of what type of waves?
a) Electromagnetic waves
b) Surface waves
c) Longitudinal waves
d) Transverse waves
View Answer
Explanation: Sound waves are longitudinal waves, where the particles of the medium oscillate parallel to the direction of wave propagation.
46. What is the speed of sound in water?
a) 1200 m/s
b) 343 m/s
c) 5000 m/s
d) 1500 m/s
View Answer
Explanation: The speed of sound in water is approximately 1500 m/s, which is faster than in air due to the denser nature of water.
47. What is the function of the plasma membrane?
a) Produces energy
b) Stores genetic material
c) Regulates entry and exit of substances
d) Provides shape to the cell
View Answer
Explanation: The plasma membrane regulates the movement of substances into and out of the cell, maintaining the internal environment.
48. What is an example of a prokaryotic cell?
a) Fungi
b) Bacteria
c) Plant cell
d) Protozoa
View Answer
Explanation: Bacteria are prokaryotic cells, meaning they do not have a membrane-bound nucleus or other membrane-bound organelles.
49. Which organelle is present in animal cells but absent in most plant cells?
a) Lysosome
b) Chloroplast
c) Cell wall
d) Vacuole
View Answer
Explanation: Lysosomes, which contain digestive enzymes, are common in animal cells but are absent or rare in most plant cells.
50. Which of the following statements about mitochondria is true?
a) Mitochondria produce energy in the form of ATP
b) Mitochondria are not membrane-bound
c) Mitochondria lack their own DNA
d) Mitochondria are found only in animal cells
View Answer
Explanation: Mitochondria are the energy-producing organelles in cells, converting nutrients into ATP, and they have their own DNA, which suggests their evolutionary origin.
51. What type of meristem is found at the tips of roots and shoots?
a) Permanent meristem
b) Apical meristem
c) Lateral meristem
d) Intercalary meristem
View Answer
Explanation: Apical meristem is located at the tips of roots and shoots, promoting growth in length and allowing the plant to grow taller or deeper into the soil.
52. Which vascular tissue conducts water in plants?
a) Phloem
b) Collenchyma
c) Xylem
d) Parenchyma
View Answer
Explanation: Xylem is the vascular tissue responsible for transporting water and minerals from the roots to the rest of the plant.
53. Which tissue is responsible for movement in the body?
a) Muscular tissue
b) Epithelial tissue
c) Connective tissue
d) Nervous tissue
View Answer
Explanation: Muscular tissue is responsible for producing movement through the contraction and relaxation of muscle fibers.
54. Which tissue transmits electrical impulses in the body?
a) Connective tissue
b) Epithelial tissue
c) Muscular tissue
d) Nervous tissue
View Answer
Explanation: Nervous tissue, consisting of neurons, transmits electrical impulses, allowing communication between different parts of the body.
55. Which crop is classified as a Kharif crop?
a) Barley
b) Maize
c) Mustard
d) Wheat
View Answer
Explanation: Maize is a Kharif crop, which is typically grown during the monsoon or rainy season in India.
56. Which cropping pattern involves growing crops in a specific sequence?
a) Crop rotation
b) Intercropping
c) Monocropping
d) Relay cropping
View Answer
Explanation: Crop rotation is the practice of growing different crops in a specific sequence to prevent soil depletion and control pests.
57. Which factor is important in organic farming?
a) Use of synthetic fertilizers
b) Monocropping
c) Heavy use of pesticides
d) Use of organic manures and biofertilizers
View Answer
Explanation: Organic farming emphasizes using natural fertilizers, such as organic manures and biofertilizers, to enhance soil fertility and reduce chemical input.
58. Which irrigation system involves the rotation of water supply through canals?
a) Canal irrigation
b) Drip irrigation
c) Basin irrigation
d) Sprinkler irrigation
View Answer
Explanation: Canal irrigation involves the rotation of water supply through a network of canals, allowing it to be distributed to agricultural fields.
Explore Class 9 Science MCQs Chapter-wise
Click on the chapters below to practice MCQs for each topic:
- Class 9 Science Chapter 1 – Matter in Our Surroundings
- Class 9 Science Chapter 2 – Is Matter Around Us Pure
- Class 9 Science Chapter 3 – Atoms and Molecules
- Class 9 Science Chapter 4 – Structure of Atom
- Class 9 Science Chapter 5 – The Fundamental Unit of Life
- Class 9 Science Chapter 6 – Tissues
- Class 9 Science Chapter 7 – Motion
- Class 9 Science Chapter 8 – Force and Laws of Motion
- Class 9 Science Chapter 9 – Gravitation
- Class 9 Science Chapter 10 – Work, Energy and Power
- Class 9 Science Chapter 11 – Sound
- Class 9 Science Chapter 12 – Improvement in Food Resources
Why Should You Practice Class 9 Science MCQs?
Practicing Class 9 Science MCQs helps you understand concepts better and perform well in exams. Here’s why it is important:
- Quick Revision: MCQs help you go through the entire syllabus quickly by focusing on the most important facts and concepts.
- Exam Preparation: MCQs are common in school exams and competitive tests. Regular practice helps you understand their format and prepare thoroughly.
- Time Management: Solving MCQs frequently improves your speed and accuracy, teaching you how to manage time effectively during exams.
- Boosts Confidence: Practicing various types of questions helps you feel more prepared and reduces exam-related stress.
- Prepares for Future Exams: Solving MCQs helps to build a strong foundation for entrance exams like JEE, NEET, and others.
Frequently Asked Questions (FAQs) About Class 9 Science MCQs
Q1. Why are MCQs important for Class 9 Science?
MCQs help in revising key concepts quickly, improving understanding, and preparing for exams effectively. They also build problem-solving skills and confidence for future competitive exams.
Q2. Are Class 9 Science MCQs Based on the NCERT Syllabus?
Yes, Class 9 Science MCQs are typically based on the NCERT syllabus, as it is the core study material for CBSE exams. They help students understand concepts better and prepare effectively for exams.
Q3. Are MCQs helpful for competitive exams like JEE and NEET?
Absolutely! Practicing MCQs early builds a strong foundation in problem-solving, which is essential for competitive exams like JEE, NEET, and others.
Q4. How often should I practice MCQs for Class 9 Science?
Daily practice is ideal. Allocate some time for solving topic-wise MCQs regularly and increase practice sessions closer to exams.
Q5. Are there any specific strategies for solving MCQs?
Yes, read the question carefully, eliminate wrong answers, and manage your time effectively. Avoid guesswork unless negative marking is not a concern.
Q6. Do MCQs cover all chapters of Class 9 Science?
Yes, MCQs cover questions from all chapters, ensuring complete syllabus coverage.
Q7. Can MCQs help me identify my weak areas?
Yes, practicing MCQs can highlight topics you find challenging, allowing you to focus on improving those areas effectively.
